SevenStar Posted April 28, 2003 Posted April 28, 2003 same with judo and bjj. that's why people tap... And I completely understand that, which is partly where I'm getting confused. If the condition is the same in all three arts, why are people labelling JJ with that particular excuse? because of the nature of how it's practiced. You stated that full resistance isn't used in practice, so as to avoid injury. With sport styles, full resistance is used on a regular basis.
LOILOI44 Posted April 29, 2003 Posted April 29, 2003 I want to dispel some things I have seen in this thread. Judo was not designed as a sport. In the Meji period (1868-1911) Japan went back to an imperial form of government. Because of the prohibition of wearing swords, the samurai no longer existed. With that jujutsu was slowly vanishing. In 1883 the Tokyo Police Department started hiring jujutsu masters to train police officers. Prof. Jigoro Kano saw the value of martial arts for physical exercise, and emotional and spiritual well being. In 1882 he founded Kodokan Judo. It was taken largely from the style of JJ called Tenshin-shinyo-ryu. Judo came into real popularity after a series of contests between the Kodokan and the Tokyo PD. The Kodokan performed so well that Judo eventually became the primary martial art of Japan. If you read Kodokan Judo by Jigoro Kano, there are self defense techniques against punches and kicks. Because of it's ability to be performed with no long term negative effects to an opponent it eventually became a sport. In 1964 Judo gained international popularity after it was made an Olympic event. Today it is the second most popular sport in the world. Back to the original question as to how Judo is different from JJ. The answer really is that it is not. All Judo techniques exist in JJ.
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